Re: 2(p^2)+1 = 0 mod 3 for any prime p != 3

Tomas Nilsson (tomas.nilsson@ducere.se)
Thu, 26 Mar 1998 17:11:47 +0100

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Hamdi Tounsi wrote:

> Hi,
> can someone give me a proof for that ?
>
> Peace
> -- hamdi

And we can easily see all the important crypographic implications for
this.
This is much to hard math for anyone to work with at high-school level,
like an assignment for instance ;)

/Tomas

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