Re: 2(p^2)+1 = 0 mod 3 for any prime p != 3

James A. Donald (jamesd@echeque.com)
Wed, 25 Mar 1998 23:13:02 -0800

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At 07:35 PM 3/25/98 +0100, Hamdi Tounsi wrote:
>Hi,
>can someone give me a proof for that ?

My son Bob pointed out to me:
    Imagine doing the calculation in base three

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